UGC NET Business Management AND OB MCQ


  1. According to Organisational Culture Inventory (OCI), an organisation in which members are encouraged to work together in ways that meet higher order human needs is classified as having a _________ culture.

(A) Constructive          (B) motivational      (C) Passive            (D) high achievement

  1. A matrix structure of organisation

(A) reinforces unity of command             (B) is inexpensive

(C) is easy to explain to the employees  (D) gives to some employees more than one boss

3.Organisational development (OD) is a planned change plus

(A) Evaluation                        (B) Intervention   (C) Ability for self-renewal  (D) Reinforcement

  1. Which of the following is a correct match ?

(A) McClelland – ERG Theory  (B) Skinner – Reinforcement Theory

(C) Vroom – Equity Theory   (D) Locke – Expectancy Theory

5 Corporate governance mechanism should ensure that corporate executive make strategic decisions that serve the entire group of

  • (A )Environmentalists (B) Government officials (C) Suppliers (D) Shareholders
  1. When we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he or she belongs, we are using the shortcut, called ________

(A) Selective Perceptive (B) Halo effect (C) Contrast effect (D) Stereotyping

  1. As per Roceach value survey, which of the following is not an instrumental value ?

(A) Ambitious (B) Imagination (C) Wise (D) Capable

  1. Which one is the correct combination ?

(A) Theory of Conditioning – Bernara (B) Operant Conditioning Theory – B.F. Skinner

(C) Stimulus Response Theory – Hoodman (D) Theory of Associates

  1. As __________, managers receive a wide variety of information and serve as the nerve centres of internal and external information of the organization.

(A) Leaders (B) Monitors (C) Distribution handlers (D) Resource allocators

  1. Match the following :
  2. Evaluative statements or judgements concerning objects, people or events i. Attitudes
  3. The opinion or belief segment of an attitude ii. Cognitive Component
  4. The emotional or feeling segment of an attitude iii. Affective Component
  5. An intention to behave in a certain way towards someone or something iv. Behavioural component


Codes :                   a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) iv iii ii i

(C) iv ii iii i

(D) i iii ii iv

  1. The ability to understand, communicate with, motivate and support other people, both individually and in groups, defines which of the following management skills?

(A) Hard Skills (B) Soft Skills (C) Conceptual Skills (D) Political Skills

  1. Performance = f (M, A, e). In this expression ‘e’ stands for

(A) Efficiency (B) Effectiveness (C) Environment (D) Entrepreneurship

  1. The form of learning in which people acquire new behaviours by systematically observing the rewards and punishments given to others is known as

(A) Operant conditioning (B) Positive reinforcement (C) Modelling (D) Law of effect

  1. Diffusion of routine information takes place through

(A) Downward Communication (B) Upward Communication  (C) Horizontal Comm (D) External Comm

  1. An integrated group of activities to bring about a change is known as

(A) Organisation development (B) Interventions (C) OCTAPACE (D) Collaborative culture

Note: The eight important basic values or ethos are as – openness, confrontation, trust, authenticity, proaction, autonomy, collaboration and experimentation. The coined term OCTAPACE is a very meaningful and it shows – eight means Octa and pace means steps and thus, together means the functional ethos of any organization.

  1. Match the following:
  2. Motivation is a function of fairness in social exchanges. 1. Expectancy Theory
  3. People are motivated to behave in ways that produce valued outcomes. 2. Alderfer’s ERG Theory
  4. Determining specific levels of performance for workers to attain and then striving to attain them.
  5. Equity Theory
  6. When people are frustrated by their inability to meet needs at the next higher level in the hierarchy, they regress to the next lower category of needs and intensify their desire to gratify these needs.
  7. Goal Setting Theory Codes :            a b c d              (A) 1 2 3 4                   (B) 4 3 2 1                    (C) 3 1 4 2                 (D) 3 4 1 2
  8. Match the following :
  9. Selfefficacy                        1. Determining specific levels of performance for workers to attain them
  10. Goal setting  2. The belief that one’s efforts will positively influence one’s performance.
  11. Expectancy  3. People strive to maintain ratio of their own outcomes to their own                                                                                                             inputs that are equal to that of those with whom they compare themselves
  12. Equity Theory                     4. One’s belief about having the capacity to perform a task.

Codes :          a b c d

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 4 1 2 3

(C) 3 4 1 2

(D) 2 3 4 1

  1. The psychological contract is:

A-The match between individual and organisational expectations

B- The changing relationship between staff and manager

C-The basis for performance management

D-A set of moral and ethical codes for employee behavior

  1. Which approach to the study of organisational behaviour emphasises the formal structure, hierarchy of management, the technical requirements and the assumption of rational behaviour?

A-The systems approach   B-The contingency theory  C-The human relations approach       D-The classical approach

  1. Which of the following statements are not correct ? Indicate the correct code.

Statement I : Organizational culture means the general pattern of behaviour, belief and values that organization members have in individuality.

Statement II : As per contingency theory of Leadership, people become leader only because of the demand of group members.

Statement III : The group judgment can only be obtained through the formal committees.

Statement IV : Ombudsperson in communication function is a person assigned to

investigate employee concerns and providing valuable upward communication link.

Codes :

(1) Statements I, II and IV (2) Statements I, III and IV

(3) Statements I, II and III (4) Statements II, III and IV.

  1. Which among the following is not a physical barrier of communication ?

(1) Poor vocabulary (2) Noise  (3) Improper time (4) Overload information

  1. Statement – I : Management control seeks to compel events to conform to plans.

Statement – II : Controlling is determining what is motivational to the employees of the


Code :

(1) Statement – I is correct but II is incorrect.         (2) Statement – II is correct but I is incorrect

(3) Both the statements I and II are correct    (4) Both the statements I and II are incorrect

  1. Assertion (A) : Sound planning is one of the essential elements for the success of corporate


Reasoning (R) : Planning is deciding in advance what is to be done. It involves the selection

of objectives, policies, procedures and programmes from among alternatives.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

(3) Both the statements (A) and (R) are incorrect.

(4) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

  1. Match the items of List – I with List – II and indicate the correct code of their matching

relating to human resource management philosophy :

List – I List – II

(a) Rational System Approach                                                   (i) F.W. Taylor

(b) Experiments to improve productivity                                (ii) Max Weber

(c) Social System Approach                                                      (iii) A.K. Rice

(d) Functional organisation concept                                        (iv) Hawthorne studies

Code :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i).

(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

  1. Match the items of List – I with List – II ; and choose the correct code of combination :

List – I List – II

(a) The Fundamentals of Top Management         (i) Peter F. Drucker

(b) Middle Management                                          (ii) R.C. Davis

(c) The Essence of Management                            (iii) E.L.F. Brech

(d) Principles and Practice of Management         (iv) Mary Caushing Nile:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i).   (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)  (3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)   (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

  1. Assertion (A) : Due to these experiments (Time, Motion and Fatigue Studies ) a factory

does not remain a factory, it is converted into a laboratory.

Reasoning (R) : Management succeeds or fails as human relations in business are intelligently

or unintelligently handled.

Code :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (4) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct.

  1. Who among the following is not associated with theories of motivation ?

(1) A.H. Maslow (2) Cris Argyris-maturity theory  (3) Frederick Herzberg (4) Peter F. Drucker.

  1. As per the Herzberg’s Hygiene Theory of motivation, which among the following is not a

motivational factor ?

(1) Recognition (2) Working Conditions. (3) Responsibility (4) Achievements

  1. Which of the following factors is an example of a factor affecting national culture referred to by Brooks?

A-Mistrust        B-Individualism   C-Sensitivity  D-Values.

  1. Which approach to the study of organisational behaviour emphasises the formal structure, hierarchy of management, the technical requirements and the assumption of rational behaviour?

A-The systems approach         B-The contingency theory

C-The human relations approach    D-The classical approach

  1. Which of the following best defines the term “span of control”?

A-The vertical graduation of authority and responsibility

B-The length of the manager’s arms   C-The number of subordinates who report directly to a given manager

D-The responsibility the supervisor has for the actions of their subordinates

  1. A policy ________________?

A-Provides the basis for decision making and the course of action to follow to achieve objectives.

B-Is a set of managerial objectives        C-Both of the above     D-Neither of the above



SMU- MBA BBA BCA MCA: Solved Assignment, Synopsis, Format of Synopsis, Project and Format of Project 2018

SMU Assignments:
 Full Assignment for SMU MBA” Finance, HR, Operations, Project Management, Quality Management, IB, SCM”.
Full Assigment for SMU BBA, BCA, MCA
Feel free to contact @ 9718575396/9990919804 or email at
SMU/ Sikkim Manipal University:
Download SMU Synopsis and Project for Marketing, Human Resource, Finance, IT, IBM, Operations, Project Management from
MBA – Project Guidelines :
Master of Business Administration (MBA) Program Directorate of Distance Education
 For Guide ID and their contact no.
For Synopsis and Project:
 Marketing Project:
Customer Satisfaction Survey
Consumer Perception Survey
Service Quality Study
Service Blueprinting
Service Process Mapping – Back stage, on-stage
Improving service quality using service blueprinting
Competition Analysis
Service standards
Study on effectiveness of employee’s role in service delivery
Effectiveness of channels (distributors/ DSAs) in service delivery
Effectiveness of channels (on-line/ Internet) in service delivery
Customer Data Analysis
Study of Institutional markets
Effectiveness of promotion schemes
Measurement of Brand awareness and brand perception
Customer Loyalty study
Study of purchase influencing factors
Customer Profiling
Advertising effectiveness study
MBA HR project:
Training and Development
Performance Management System
Employee Welfare Measure
360 degree Appraisal
Quality of Work life
HRD Practices
Factors determining Job Satisfaction of Employees
Stress Management
Employee retention Techniques
Settlement of Grievance(Do it in Manufacturing concern)
Workers Participation in Management.
Effectiveness of Training(Do it as Research Project)
Role of HRM Department in ERP (SAP/People soft)
Role of HRM Department in Growing Organization
Competency Mapping
Job evaluation
Employee satisfaction
Compensation review
360 degree feedback
Recruitment Process
General evaluation
Mapping training need of employees
Succession planning in Senior management
Retention strategy in a manufacturing set up
MBA Finance Project

Working Capital management – Comparative Valuation
Corporate lending
Industry analysis and company analysis on a scenario basis, competitiveness, growth potential and credit analysis
Ratio analysis – Financial Performance Using Ratio Analysis
Debtor management
Research in Risk management, Banking, Derivatives etc
International Banking, Foreign Exchange, Monetary Economics, Micro Finance, Rural Finance

The Effects of Financial Constraints on Corporate Investment Decisions and Demand for Liquidity
Corporate finance
Capital budgeting – 
Capital Budgeting and Initial Cash Outlay(ICO) Uncertainty 
Virtual finance
Financial Planning and forecasting
Structured Finance
Computational finance
Optimization Methods in Finance
Dependence on external finance: an inherent industry characteristic?
Project Finance as a Tool for Growth
Creating Value through Financial Management
Cost Reduction and Control
New Financial Approaches for the Economic Sustainability in Manufacturing Industry
Activity-based costing and management
Fundamental Analysis to Assess Earnings Quality
EQA Earnings quality Analysis
Zero Base Budgeting
International business – Project Reports on International business
International finance
Investment banking
Investment management

 For complete guidelines you may call at 9718575396/9990919804  or

SMU MBA MCA Solved Assignment

Q1.  Three machines A, B and C produce respectively 60%, 30% and 10% of the total number of items of a factory. The percentage of defective output of these machines are respectively 2%, 3% and 4%. An item is selected at random and is found to be defective. Find the probability that the item was produced by machine C.


Solution: Let P(A), P(B) and P(C) denote the probabilities of choosing an item produced by A, B, C respectively. Also, let P(X/A), P(X/B), P(X/C) denote the probabilities of choosing a defective item from the outputs of A, B, C respectively. Then, from what is given, we have

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Q.1 What are the advantages of corporate banking? Explain different types of loans and advances offered by corporate banks.
Advantages of Corporate banking

Types of loans and advances offered by corporate banks

Ans. 1

A corporate banking account has a lot of advantages.  As your company grows, it is helpful to have different corporate finance accounts for different purposes, including ones for reserves and other savings.

Another perk of having a corporate banking account is the access to professional bankers that can help you with any aspect of finances in regard to your company.  This could be help with cash management, accounts payable and receivable and conducting international transactions.


Q.1] Following information obtained from a manufacturing company:

Direct Material – 150000

Office Expenses – 120000

Factory Expenses – 90000

Total Sales – 650000

Prime Cost – 450000

15% of the output is in stock


(a) Direct Expenses (b) Factory Cost  (c) Cost of Production   (d) Cost of Sale (e)Profit



Direct materials – 150000

Factory expenses – 90000

Office expenses – 120000

Total sales – 650000

Prime cost- 450000

15% of the output is in stock


Cost Sheet


Direct Materials 1,50,000
Direct Expenses* 3,00,000

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Assets Fixed Asset 15,00,000
Current Asset 5,00,000


Liabilities Accounts payable 200000
Reserve And Surplus 100000
10% Debentures 300000
6% Preference Share Capital 300000
Equity Share Capital 1100000
  1. Calculate Debt-Ratio
  2. Calculate Debt-equity Ratio



  1. Debt ratio = Total liabilities to outsiders/Total assets

= (Debentures + accounts payable)/ (Fixed +current assets)

= (3,00,000 + 2,00,000) / (15,00,000 + 5,00,000)

Interpretation: The ratio indicates that the total liabilities are well covered by the entity’s asset value.

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Marketing Multiple Choice Questions 2

                                   CLASS TEST

There are fifty questions, each carry 2 marks. All are compulsory.

  1. Assertion (A). Selling is important not merely for increasing the profits of businessmen, but also for making goods and services available to the consumers in society.

Reason (R). It is the process whereby goods and services finally flow to the consumers who need them and the firm performs its functions of distributing its products among consumers.

  1. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true
  2. Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is not true
  3. Assertion (A) is not true but Reason (R) is true
  4. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the reason of Assertion (A)
  5. With online advertising program,_________, the companies can reach customers and grow business.
    a) AdWords
    b) AdSense
    c) AdCity
    d) AdAlpha
  6. Marketers operate in which marketplaces:a) Consumer and business
    b) Global and non-profit
    c) a & b both
    d) None of the above
  7. “Better products, Better value, Better living” is the mission statement of which company:

    a) VICCO
    b) HUL
    c) P&G
    d) NIRMA

  8. Marketing is an organizational function and a set of processes for creating, communicating and delivering value to customers and for managing customer relationships in ways that benefits the organization and its stakeholders” definition is given bya) Philip Kotler
    b) The American Marketing Association
    c) The Association of National Advertisers
    d) Peter Drucker
  9. In the software industry, Bangalore is positioned as thea) Silicon Valley of India
    b) Tech city of India
    c) Power Hub city
    d) Engineering City of India
  10. Indian Government is marketing India as a tourist destination through the ___________ advertisement campaign.
    a) Credible India
    b) Incredible India
    c) Gateway to backwaters
    d) Gateway of India
  11. Resource markets can be classified into:a) Raw material markets and labor markets
    b) Labor markets and money market
    c) Raw material market, labor market and money market
    d) None of the above
  12. Which of the following statement is true about rural marketing?a) Rural Marketing consists of marketing of only inputs to the rural marketb) Rural Marketing consists of marketing of only outputs from the rural markets to other geographical areas

    c) Rural Marketing consists of marketing of inputs to the rural market as well as well as marketing of outputs from the rural markets to other geographical areas

    d) All of above are false

  13. Value can be defined as the sum of the perceived tangible and intangible costs and benefits to customers and is a combination of :a) quality and service
    b) Service and price
    c) Quality, service and price
    d) None of the above
  14. In marketing terms, “QSP” stands fora) Quality, service and price
    b) Quality, service and product
    c) Quality, sales and product
    d) Quality, sales and prices
  15. Value ______ with quality and service and ______ with price.a) Increases, decreases
    b) increases, increases
    c) Decreases, increases
    d) Decreases, decreases
  16. The marketer uses _____________ to display, sell, or deliver the physical product or service to the buyer or user.a) Communication channel
    b) Distribution channel
    c) Service Channel
    d) None of the above
  17. When a firm acquires its peers or expands downstream or upstream, its objective is toa) Capture a higher percentage of Supply Chain Value
    b) Capture a higher percentage of Demand Chain Value
    c) a & b
    d) None of the above
  18. The broad environment consists of:a) Demographic environment, economic environment and physical environment
    b) Technological environment, political-legal environment and social-cultural environment
    c) Both a & b
    d) None of the above
  19. The societal forces that spawned the Information Age have resulted ina) Many new consumer capabilities
    b) Many new company capabilities
    c) Many new consumer and company capabilities
    d) None of the above

17 The original name of NIKE was

a) Blue Ribbon Sports
b) Red Ribbon Sports
c) Blue and Red Ribbon Sports
d) Orange Ribbon Sports

18 Holistic Marketing incorporates:

a) Relationship marketing and integrated marketing
b) Internal marketing and performance marketing
c) Both a & B
d) None of the above

18 Marketing focuses on the need of _______

a) buyer
b) Seller
c) Buyer and Seller
d) None of the above

19 Brand and customer equity is an element of

a) Relationship marketing
b) Integrated marketing
c) Internal marketing
d) Performance marketing

20 Select the theme of integrated marketing:

a) Many different marketing activities communicate and deliver value
b) When coordinated, marketing activities maximize their joint effects
c) Both a & B
d) None of the above

21 Making gifts of money, goods, or time to help non-profit organizations, groups or individuals is:

a) Corporate social marketing
b) Cause marketing
c) Cause-related marketing
d) Corporate philanthropy

  1. Promoting social issues through efforts such as licensing agreements, advertising and sponsorships is:a) Corporate social marketing
    b) Cause marketing
    c) Cause-related marketing
    d) Corporate philanthropy

23 _____________- recognizes that “Everything Matters” with marketing and that a broad, integrated perspective is often necessary.

a) The production concept
b) The product concept
c) The holistic marketing concept
d) The selling concept

  1. The value creation and delivery sequence process place emphasis on:a) Choosing the value
    b) Providing the value
    c) Communicating the value
    d) All of the above
  2. Market Research and company self analysis is a part ofa) Value-developing process
    b) Value-delivering process
    c) Value-defining process
    d) None of the above

26 Michael Porter of Harvard has proposed the _______ as a tool for identifying ways to create more customer value.

a) Product chain
b) Value chain
c) Supply chain
d) None of the above

27, The primary activities in a value chain includes

a) Inbound logistics and outbound logistics
b) Procurement and technology development
c) Human Resource Management
d) Firm Infrastructure.

28 Customer relationship management, internal resource management and business partnership management are the key functions of

a) Value exploration
b) Value delivery
c) Value creation
d) None of the above

29 Tactical marketing plan focuses on

a) Promotion
b) Merchandising
c) Sales Channel
d) All of the above

30 A target market definition tends to focus on selling a product or service to a

a) Current market
b) Potential market
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above

31 For intensive growth, the company first considers whether it could gain more market share with its current products in their current market, using a _________

a) Market-penetration strategy
b) Market development strategy
c) Product-development strategy
d) Diversification strategy

32 Market development strategy focuses on

a) Current products and new markets
b) Current products and current markets
c) New products and current markets
d) New products and new markets

33 Product development strategy for achieving intensive growth focuses on:

a) Current products and new markets
b) Current products and current markets
c) New products and current markets
d) New products and new markets

34 Acquiring one or more suppliers for integrative growth is

a) Horizontal integration
b) Forward integration
c) Backward integration
d) None of the above

35 Peter Drucker pointed out that it is more important to __________ to be effective than to ________ to be efficient.

a) Do the right thing, do things right
b) Do things right, do the right thing
c) Do the right thing, do things wrong
d) None of the above

36 For an MBO (Manages by objectives) system to work, the business unit’s objectives must meet ___ criteria.

a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

37 Michael Porter has proposed _______ generic strategies that provide a good starting point for strategic thinking.

a) 3
b) 5
c) 4
d) 6

38 Under the Consumer Protection Act, following rights of the consumers are recognized:

a) Safety and information
b) Representation and Redressal
c) Choice and consumer education
d) All of the above

39 ________________ allows for the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data and findings relevant to a specific market situation.

a) An internal record system
b) A marketing research system
c) A marketing intelligence system
d) None of the above

40 ______________ is a book published by Businessworld that provides a range of useful data on the Indian market environment, and commentaries and articles by business researchers and professionals.

a) The Marketing Whitebook
b) The Marketing Redbook
c) The Marketing Greenbook
d) None of the above

41 Companies and their suppliers, marketing intermediaries, customers, competitors, and publics all operate in a ___________________ of forces and trends, increasingly global, that shapes opportunities and pose threats.

a) Macroenvironment
b) Microenvironment
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

42 Within the rapidly changing global picture, the firm must monitor six major forces: demographic, economic, ___________, natural, technological and political legal.

a) social
b) social-cultural
c) cultural
d) None of the above

43  The main demographic force that marketers monitor is _________.

a) Population
b) Literacy
c) Sex
d) None of the above

44 Green marketing myopia can be avoided by

a) Consumer value positioning
b) Calibration of consumer knowledge
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

45 ______________ are the environmental leaders and activists, and are characterized by strong knowledge of environmental issues.

a) True Blue Greens
b) Greenback Greens
c) True Greens
d) None of the above

  1. “The performance of business activities that directs the flow of goods and services from producer to consumer or user.”, Given by:                    a.American Marketing Association, b. Peter Ducker, c. Philip Kotler, d.None 
  2.  “Image building” objectives are common in _____ type of market structure?

a Competition, b. Oligopoly, c. Monopoly, None

  1. A specialty product is ________ intensively distributed than a shopping product                                                                                                      a. More, b. Less, c. Both of the above
  2. In macro environment, ‘pressure groups’:                                                              a.cultural environment b. demographic environment c. economic    environment d. political environment
  3. In company’s microenvironment, ‘general publics’ consists of                a.minority groups, b. stockholders c. community organizations., d. public image

Organisation Behaviour: MCQ

Question 1 A common definition of Organisational Behaviour is that it is the study of:

A- Patterns of organisational structure

B- Group behaviour

C- Individual behaviour

D- All of the above


Question 2.

Which of the following is not part of the basic framework for analysing Organisational Behaviour issues?

a-The process of management

B-Organisational context

C-Gender and ethnic differences

 D-Behaviour of people

Question 3.

The four main dimensions which influence behaviour in work organisations are:

A-Individual, organisation, group, gender

B-Individual, group, organisation, environment

C-Group, environment, organisation, gender

D-Environment, group, individual, gender

Question 4.

The main contribution of psychology to Organisational Behaviour is the study of:

A-Personality, attitudes, perceptions and motives

B-Social structures and relationships

C Social beliefs, customs and values

D-Philosophy and ethics of human activity

Question 5.

According to Morgan metaphors can be used to view an organization. These metaphors _____________

A-Provide a broader view of the dynamics or organisational behaviour

B- All of the above

C-Define work as a central life issue

D-Are instruments of domination

Question 6.

Which of the following is not an influence on behaviour in work organisations?

A-The environment

B-The individual

C-The group

D-The building

Question 7.

The psychological contract is:

A-The match between individual and organisational expectations

B- The changing relationship between staff and manager

C-The basis for performance management

D-A set of moral and ethical codes for employee behaviour

Question 8.

The “Peter Principle” states that, in a hierarchy every employee:

A-Tends to rise to their natural level of competence

B-Tends to rise to their natural level of incompetence

C-Tends to challenge the views of their senior managers

D-Tends to seek promotion

Question 9.

Which of the following is a major feature of “Parkinson’s Law”?

A-Officials make work for each other

B-The contingency theory

C-Work expands so as to fill the time available for its completion

D-A continual process of balancing

Question 10.

Cloke and Goldsmith refer to the age of traditional management coming to an end. This is seen in the

 A-Decline of hierarchical, bureaucratic, autocratic management

B-Increase in hierarchical, bureaucratic, autocratic management styles

C-Increasingly international or global business environment

D-None of the above


Question 11.

Which of the following factors are cited as potential explanatory factors underlying the trend towards globalisation?

A-International business activities such as franchising

B-International competitive pressure

C-The spread of business processes across nations and regions

 D-All of the above

Question 12.

Which of the following is not an advantage of cross-cultural awareness?

A-Increased self awareness

B-Lessening ignorance, prejudice and hatred


D-Sensitivity to difference

Question 13.

Which of the following factors is an example of a factor affecting national culture referred to by Brooks?





Question 14.

Which of the following is not one of the series of “languages” conceptualised by Hall?

A-Language of group

B-Languages of things

C-Language of agreements

D-Language of friendships

Question 15.

What is the premise relating to organisational behaviour put forward by Wood as part of the Financial Times Mastering Management series?

A-Organisational behaviour can be regarded as the key to the whole area of management.

B-There is a need for a cross cultural approach to the study of organisational behaviour.

C-There is a dramatic change taking place in the philosophy underlying organisational behaviour.

D-None of the above.

Question 16

The study of management theory is important for which of the following reasons:

A-It is scientific

B-Management theories are interpretive and evolve with organisational changes

C-It helps decision making

D-All of the above


Question .

Which approach to the study of organisational behaviour emphasises the formal structure, hierarchy of management, the technical requirements and the assumption of rational behaviour?

A-The systems approach

B-The contingency theory

C-The human relations approach

D-The classical approach



Which of the following are sub-groupings of the classical approach?


A-Individual and bureaucracy

B-Scientific management and bureaucracy

C-Scientific management and gender management

D-Environment and individual



Which of the following is not a feature of a bureaucracy?


B-Hierarchy of authority





Which of the following is an example of the Hawthorne experiments?


A-The relay assembly test room

B-The bank wiring observation room

C-The interview  programme

D-The illumination experiments

All of the above




The systems approach __________________?


A-Encourages managers to view the organisation both as a whole and as part of a larger environment

B-Emphasises the psychological and social aspects

C-Emphasises the technical requirements of the organisation and its needs

D-All of the above



Which of the following is not a principle of action theory?


A-Individual members will each have their own goals and interpretation of their work situation

B-Actions can lead to changes in meanings

C-Sociology is concerned not just with behaviour but with meaningful action

D-None of the above



Which of the following is an advantage of dividing the writers on organisational management into various approaches?

A-The use of the term “schools” provides a clear distinction between each division

B-The various approaches are completely unrelated

C-It enables the manager to take from the different approaches those ideas which best suit the requirements of the job



What is the major criticism of the attempt to define generalised models of management theory?


A-The categorisation of writers is arbitrary

B-They provide universalistic principles of behaviour.

C-The structure of management is dependent on situational variables

D-The assumption of national culture



What does Crainer suggest happens when one idea after another fails to translate into sustainable practice?



A-Ideas become as important to management decisions as is instinct

B-There is a growing disillusionment with the pedlars of managerial wisdom

C-Corporate managers continue to trust theory




 Most social scientists believe individual personality is influenced by two main factors:


A-Education and genetic make-up

B-Social class and family environment

C-Inherited characteristics and social environment

D-Local environment and family traits



Nomothetic researchers into personality take an approach which is broadly:







The idiographic approach believes that early family life contributes to personality development:







Which   of the  following is not one of the “Big Five” dimensions of personality difference:

A-Conscientiousness and heedlessness

B-Emotional stability and instability


D- Extraversion/introversion



Eysenck describes those who are calm, even-tempered, peaceful and thoughtful as:






Question 6.

Cattell used _________ as his main personality descriptor.









Cooley described the process by which we come to understand our own personalities through relationships and the reactions of others. He termed this

A-The emergent self

B-The hidden self

C-The looking-glass self

D-The true self



Erik Erikson’s theory is a good example of the _____________ approach.







Question 9.

The psychologist who influenced the creation of the Myers-Briggs Personality Type Indicator by Isabel Briggs-Myers and Katherine Briggs was:


A-Kenny Rogers

B-George Melly

C-Carl Jung

D-Clement Freud


Question 10.

Kelly’s theory of personality constructs led to the development of:

A-The repertory grid

B-The Myers-Briggs type indicator

C-Cattel’s 16PF

D-All of the above



Friedman and Rosenman’s work suggested that stress tended to cause illness more frequently in those with

A-Neither type

B-Both types equally

C-Type B personality

D-Type A personality



Nativists believe that intelligence is mostly:



B-Developed by experience


D-A fixed quantity



The British Psychological Society divides psychological tests into two types – tests of:

A-Repeated and optimal performance

B-Optimal and typical performance

          C-Typical and maximum performance

D-Maximum and repeated performance



___________________ can be defined as “providing a state of readiness or tendency to respond in a particular way”.








In a Diversity Management approach, organisations seek to achieve a situation where:

            A-Individual differences are valued by the business

B-The organisation has a homogeneous workforce

C-All categories of disadvantaged groups are represented at management level

D-Individual differences are created through training



According to Mitchell, the purpose of motivational theories is to:

A-Change behaviour

B-Predict behaviour

C-Control behaviour

D-Organise behaviour



Needs and expectations at work are sometimes divided into two types:







mllins proposes a three-fold classification of motivation as a starting point for discussion which comprises:


A-Social relationships, organisational affiliation and economic rewards

B-Economic rewards, intrinsic satisfaction and social relationships

C-Intrinsic satisfaction, social relationships and organisational affiliation

D-Organisational affiliation, economic rewards and social relationships



Which of the following is a positive reaction to the blockage of a desired goal?







Negative responses to the blockage of a desired goal include:




D-All three of the above



Managers can attempt to reduce levels of frustration in organisation members by:

A-Effective recruitment

B-Participative management

C-All of the above

D-None of the above



Aldefer and McClelland are two examples of ___________ theories of motivation.








Maslow suggests that human needs are arranged in a series of levels, a hierarchy of importance. Which of the following statements are relevant to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory?

A-A need is not necessarily fully satisfied before a subsequent need arises

B-A satisfied need is no longer a motivator

C-The hierarchy is not necessarily in a fixed order

D-All of the above



Steers and Porter’s model relates the _____________ level of Maslow’s Hierarchy to organisational factors that include a cohesive work group and friendly supervision.






According to Herzberg, which of the following may be regarded as hygiene/maintenance factors?

A-Working conditions


C-Company policy

D-All of the above


McClelland’s achievement motivation theory states that people with a high achievement need have a preference for:

A-Attaining success through their own efforts rather than through teamwork

B-Clear and unambiguous feedback

C-Both of the above

D-Neither of the above


Vroom and Porter and Lawler developed examples of __________ models of motivation:






Equity theory of motivation focuses on:

A-People’s expectation of the different outcomes for a given action

B-People’s perception of how they should perform in a given situation at work

C-The motivational force involved in a person’s actions at work

D- The fact that people are influenced by the expected results of their actions.







Which of the following statements is true about the Goal Theory of motivation?


A-People with difficult goals will perform better than people with easier goals.

B- Research has shown that there is little support for the Goal Theory and its effects on motivation with regard to the relationship between goal-setting and performance.

C- People with easier goals will perform better than people with difficult goals.

D- A person’s level of commitment to a goal will not regulate the level of effort expended.


Which of the following is not a core job dimension as summarised by Mullins?

A-Skill variety



D-Task significance


Teams occur when a number of people have ____________________ and recognise that their personal success is dependent on the success of others.

A-Similar jobs

B-The same manager

C-A common goal

D-A shared work environment


Groups which are formed as the consequence of organisational structure and work division are known as:

A-informal groups

B-target groups

C-operational groups

D-formal groups


Bolton and Fisher noted that ________________ teams can be formed specifically to initiate organisational change.






Reasons for the formation of groups include:

A -The performance of certain tasks which can be performed only through combined efforts of individuals working together.

B-The provision of protection for its membership.

C -The provision of guidelines on generally acceptable behaviour.

D- All of the above


In the Tuckman model, groups at the ___________________ stage develop guidelines and standards of acceptable behaviour.






A potential disadvantage associated with cohesive groups is:

A-A tendency to develop attitudes which are hard to change

B-A tendency to see other groups as rivals

C-A tendency to focus on social activities which may reduce output

D-All of the above


Which of the following is not a characteristic of an effective work group?

A-The open expression of feelings and disagreements

B-A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives.

C-The resolution of conflict by members themselves.

  D- A belief in shared aims and objectives.


A virtual team is a collection of people who are _________________ separated but still __________________ together closely.

A-Geographically; work

B-Physically; think

C-Geographically; decide

D-Temporally; work


A role-set is the range of contacts with whom an individual in a particular role has:

A-A line management relationship

B-Regular appraisals

C-Daily contact

D-Meaningful interactions


Belbin’s initial research led him to propose how many team roles?






The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as imagination and creativity but may show disregard for practical details is:




D-Team Worker


The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as strategic vision and accurate judgement but may also be overly critical is:

A-Team Worker





The type of communication network which is most efficient for simple tasks is the:

A-All channel





The risky-shift phenomenon means that there is a tendency for groups to make decisions which are _______________________ than those which individual members would make.

A-Less risky

B-Less consistent

C-More conservative

D-More risky


Brainstorming as a problem-solving and decision-making technique:

A-Focuses the mind

B-Encourages communication

C-Involves everyone

D-All three of the above


Which  of the following is an explanation of the “Johari Window”

A-A blind area

B-Hidden behaviour

C-A simple framework for looking at self-insight

D-None of the above


According to Douglas are people management skills are the ______________ types of skills.


B-Direct and honest


D-More difficult and rare



   Leadership today is increasingly associated with the concept of ______________?

A-Getting others to follow





Which of the following statements about leadership is false?

A-Leadership does not necessarily take place within a hierarchical structure of an organisation

B-When people operate as leaders their role is always clearly established and defined

C-Not every leader is a manager

D-All the above


Approaches to the study of leadership which emphasis the personality of the leader are termed ______________.

A-Inspirational theories

B-Trait theories

C-Group theories

D-Contingency theories


Adair claims that the effectiveness of a leader is dependent upon meeting ________areas of need within the work group.




D-None of the above


In Adair’s approach, needs such as training the group, setting standards and maintaining discipline, and appointing sub-leaders may be called _____________.

            A-Team functions

B-Task functions

C-Work functions

D-Individual functions


The Ohio State Leadership Studies revealed two major dimensions of leadership behaviour: _________________ and initiating structure.






The terms “employee-centred” and “production-centred” to describe leader behaviour were used by ___________?



C-Blake and McCanse



What are the four main styles of leadership displayed by the manager which identified in Tannenbaum and Schmidt’s continuum of possible leadership behaviour?

A-Tells, helps, joins and leads

B-Commands, sells, consults and resists

C-Commands, helps, joins and leads

D-Tells, sells, consults and joins


On what belief are contingency theories of leadership based?

A-That there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all situations

B-That there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all managers

C-That there is no single style of leadership appropriate to all situations

D-None of the above


According to Fiedler’s LPC scale what will leaders with a low LPC score gain satisfaction from?

A-Developing team relationships

B-Achieving objectives

C-Both of the above

D-Neither of the above


On which aspects of a leader’s decision are Vroom and Yetton’s contingency model of leadership based?

A-Decision quality

B-Decision acceptance

C-Both of the above

D-Neither of the above


One contingency model of leadership is the path-goal theory. This suggests that an individual‘s motivation is dependent on _____________________.

A-Their effective performance

B-The necessary direction, guidance, training and support being provided

C-Whether path-goal relationships are clarified

D-Expectations that increased effort to achieve an improved level of performance will be successful


The situation leadership theory of ___________ and ______________ is based on follower’s readiness to perform.

A-Abbot and Costello

B-Vroom and Yetton

C-Hersey and Blanchard

D-Tannenbaum and Schmidt


Extensive research in over 30 countries has shown that people want leaders who exemplify four qualities. Kouzes and Posner (2000) suggest these qualities are ________, ________, _________ and ___________.

A-Inspiring, competent, influential, dynamic

B-Honest, dynamic, ruthless, single minded

C-Forward-looking, influential, competent, dynamic

D-Honest, forward-looking, inspiring, competent


Referent power is based on the subordinate’s perception that the leader has a right to exercise influence because of the leader’s _______________.

A-Personal charisma

B-Ability to punish or reward

C-Role or position within the organisation

D-Expertise and knowledge


According to Knights and Williams, what could management be seen as?

A-A job title

B-An everyday activity involving interactions between people

C-A field of study

D-A social position


Which of the following are included in Watson’s method of viewing management?

A-Personality, job title, style, politics

B-Management as magic, job title, management as art, management as science

C-Management as magic, management as art, management as science, management as politics

D-Leadership. management as art, management as science, management as politics


Administration can be viewed as:

A-The same thing as management

B-Separate from management

C-Part of management

D-Less important than management


Brech identifies four main elements of management. They are: planning, control, co-ordination and:



C-The division of work



Which of the following is not one of the five elements of management?








Mintzberg classified the activities of monitoring, disseminating and being a spokesperson as part of a manager’s ______________ role.




D-None of the above


Kotter identified the significant activities which all managers had in common as:

A-Network building and strategic planning

B-Strategic planning and resource allocating

C-Agenda setting and resource allocating

D-Agenda setting and network building



Managers require a combination of technical competence, social and human skills and conceptual ability. Technical competence may be defined as:

A-The ability to secure the effective use of human resources of the organisation

B-The ability to view the complexities of the operations of the organisation as a whole, including environmental influences

C-The ability to apply specific knowledge, methods and skills to discrete tasks


What type of approach is most frequently identified with Human Capital Management (HCM)?


B-Influencing and manipulative

C-Formalized, technical and manipulative

D-Interpersonal and technical


Which of the following statements is not an assumption of a manager who might adopt a Theory X style of management?

A-The average person avoids responsibility

B-People must be threatened with punishment if the organisation is to meet its objectives

C-The intellectual potential of the average person is only partially utilised

D-The average person is lazy and has an inherent dislike of work


Which of the following is an assumption of Theory Y?

A-Given the right conditions, the average worker can learn to accept responsibility

B-Commitment to objectives is a function of rewards associated with their achievement

C-The capacity for creativity in solving organizational problems is distributed widely in the population

D-The intellectual potential of the average person is only partly utilised

E-All of the above


The Blake and Mouton Leadership (or Managerial) Grid uses two key dimensions in relation to management style; concern for ___________ and concern for _______________.

A-Production, co-operation

B-Productio n, teamwork

            C-People, production

D-People, targets


In the Blake and Mouton Leadership grid, which management style has a low concern for people but a high concern for production?



C-Country club



MBO stands for:

A-Management by Objectives

B-Management by Organising

C-Management by Objectification

D-Managerial Behaviour in Organisations


Which of the following philosophies are likely to make for the successful management of people and lead to improved work performance?

A-Emphasis on end-results

B-Fair and equitable treatment

C-Staff and customer satisfaction

D-Involvement and availability

Recognition and credit

All of the above


Which of the following is NOT a measure of a manager’s effectiveness?

A-Speed of promotion through the organisation

B-Level of staff turnover

C-Absenteeism and sickness

D-Accidents at work


Corporate strategy can be seen as a term which embraces a link between structure, the process of management and:

A-Job design

B-Work organisation

C-Applications of organisational behaviour

D-Human resource management


According to Lynch, in public sector organizations strategy is likely to be governed by:


B-Public policy issues

C-Both of the above

D-Neither of the above


A simple way of expressing the term “synergy” is ____________?

A-2 + 2 = 5

B-2 x 2 = 1

C-2 x 2 = 4

D-2 + 2 = 4


One way of evaluating an organisation’s business environment and strategic capability is to use a __________________ analysis.






Organisations have both formal and informal goals. Informal goals can be inferred from:

A-The mission statement

B-The strategic plan

C-Decisions and actions taken from within the organisation

D-The annual results


Organisational ____________________ set out more specifically the goals of the organisation, the aims to be achieved and the desired end state.






A  policy ________________?

A-Provides the basis for decision making and the course of action to follow to achieve objectives.

B-Is a set of managerial objectives

C-Both of the above

D-Neither of the above


Which of the following is not one of the categories found in the mnemonic SMART objectives?







The objectives of structure may be summarised as to provide for ______________?

A-The social satisfaction of members working in the organisation

B-The economic and efficient performance of the organisation

C-Accountability for areas of work undertaken by groups

D-Flexibility in order to respond to future demands

E- All of the above


What are the 3 interrelated levels which, according to Mullins, it is possible to look at organisations in terms of?

A-Community, individual, managerial

B-Technical, managerial, community

C-Individuals, society, organisation

D-Technical, managerial, society


Which of the following best defines the term “span of control”?

A-The vertical graduation of authority and responsibility

B-The length of the manager’s arms

C-The number of subordinates who report directly to a given manager

D-The responsibility the supervisor has for the actions of their subordinates


Which of the following is not a relationship found in a formal organisation?







What sort of organisation might operate a matrix structure?

A-A university

B-A local authority social services department

C-An insurance company

D-All of the above


The contingency approach develops the _________ approach one stage further in relating the environment to specific structures of organisation.


B-Organisation chart



E-None of the above


 Control is a general concept that can be applied to __________________?

A-Individual performance only

B-Individual behaviour only

C-Organisational performance only

D-Both individual behaviour and organisational performance


What does the human relations approach sees control as?

A-A feature of the way organisations are structured



D-A feature of interpersonal influence

E-None of the above


Which of the following is not something with which a control can be concerned?

A-Type of production system

B-Policies and procedures

C-General results

D-Observance of legislation

E-Recruitment and selection

F-None of the above


Which of the following is a strategy for control as explained by Child?





D-all of the above


Which of these are characteristics of an effective control system?

A-it should be able to determine corrective action

B-it should be subject to continual review

C-it should report deviations from desired standards as soon as possible

D-all of the above


Power differs according to the means by which members of the organisation are likely to comply. Which three types of power are identified by Etzioni?

A-Coercive; remunerative; normative

B-Normative; legitimate; coercive

C-Referent; remunerative; legitimate

D-Coercive; referent; reward


__________ power relies on the allocation and the manipulation of symbolic rewards, for example, esteem and prestige.






Which of the following defies calculative involvement?

A-When members are involved against their wishes.

B-The individuals belief in the goals of the organsiation

C-Where attachment to the orgainisation is motivated by extrinsic rewards

D-None of the above


The three levels of power are ______________?

A-Institutional, national, individual

B-Processional, organisational, national

C-Processional, institutional, organisational

D-None of the above


According to Hicks and Gullett for a control system to be meaningful it should ____________?

A-Draw attention to critical activities important to the success of the organisation

B-Be understood by those involved in its operation

C-Report deviations from the desired standard of performance as quickly as possible

D-Conform with the structure of the organisation

E-  All of the above


Which of the following, according to Pfeffer, is a way in which an individual or group may acquire power in an organisation?

A-Reward power

B-Legitimate power

C-Being Irreplaceable

D-Expert power

E-All of the above


Delegation creates a special manager-subordinate relationship based on:

A-authority, responsibility, accountability

B-authority, power, control

C-power, ability, willingness

D-knowledge, skill, attitude


A study of major UK businesses suggests that the reaction to the new wave of management thinking on empowerment is _______________?

A-Despondent reaction

B-Mixed reaction

C-Apathetic reaction

D-Enthusiastic reaction


Which of the following is a possible reason for a lack of delegation?

A-The manager has no terms of reference

B-The manager fears the subordinate will be too good a job and show the manager in a bad light

C-The manager has had no guidance support and training

None of the above

D-All of the above


Which of the following is one of the stages in a planned and systematic approach to delegation?

A-Guidance, support and training

B-Freedom of action within agreed terms of reference

C-Effective monitoring

D-Clarification of objectives

All of the above


What does and Ethical Foundation for an organisation embody?

A-The structure, operational and conduct of the activities of the organisation

B-The basic principles which govern the external and internal relations of the organisation

C-Neither of the above


What does the importance of ethical behaviour, integrity and trust call into question?

A-The extent to which managers should attempt to change the underlying beliefs and values of individual followers

B-What we do next

C-Who does what

None of the above

All of the above


A ________ _________ sets out the purpose and general direction for the organisation?

A-Mission statement


C-Purpose statement

D-Profit statement

E-All of the above


Which of the following would most effectively act as the primary objective of a business organisation?

A-To procure resources

B-To mediate between the organisation and the environment

C-To communicate with shareholders

D-To make a profit

E-All of the above


What is the purpose of a balanced scorecard?

A-To measure contribution of people to business growth

B-To relate business performance to customer satisfaction

C-To relate business performance to financial measures

D-To combine a range of qualitative and quantitative indicators of performance

E-All of the above


Which of the following does the term Corporate Social Responsibility relate to?

A-Ethical conduct

B-Environmental practice

C-Human rights and employee relations

D-Community investment

E-All of the above


            Who are organisational stakeholders?



C-Providers of finance



F-All of the above


What is Ethics to do with?

A-The wider community


C-Right and wrong


E-None of the above


 Which of the following is an example of an area where business ethics apply?

A-Conduct of international operations


C-In the personal life of staff

D-None of the above


           Which legislation relates to the concept of business ethics?

A-Building regulations

B-Food Act

C-Freedom of Information Act

D-All of these


            According to French and Bell, culture is ____________________?

A-Traditions, values, policies, beliefs

B-Values, styles, processes, activities

C-Traditions, values

D-The bedrock of behaviour in organisations

E-Policies, practices, behaviours

F-None of the above


            A number of approaches may be used to bring about effective change within an organisation,               often called intervention strategies, these include:

A-grid training

B-team building


D-all of the above


 Schein suggested three levels of culture in order from shallowest to deepest. In this order,                      they are:

A-History, artefacts, beliefs

B-Assumptions, artefacts, values

C-History, values, activities

D-Artefacts, values, assumptions

E-None of the above


          Harrison and Handy describe a project oriented organisation which is structured like a matrix              and based on expert power as a __________ culture.





E-None of the above


          According to Deal and Kennedy, an organisation of individualists who take high risks and                      receive quick feedback, is an example of a ____________? described as:

A-process culture

B-Work-hard/play-hard culture

C-Bet-your-company culture

D-Tough-guy, macho culture

E-None of the above


The pervasive nature of culture means that it will significantly affect:

A-Motivation and job satisfaction


C-Group behaviour

D-All of the above


           Organisational climate is based on the ____________ of members towards the organisation.




D-None of the above

All of the above


             Galunic and Weeks suggest that with the demise of ______________ companies need other                strategies to encourage commitment?

A-Pension plans

B-Job security

C-Promotion opportunities

D-Career paths

E-None of the above


          Resistance to change can be caused by:

A-Selective perception



D-All of the above


            It is Cunningham’s belief that, despite the popular myth to the contrary, people generally

A-Love change

B-Like being controlled

C-Prefer stability

D-Dislike change


            Which of the following is NOT one of Kotter and Cohen’s series of steps for successful                            management of large-scale change?

A-Empowering action

B-Producing short-term wins

C-Creating visions


E-None of the above

Question – Which  of the following is a reason for an individual’s resistance to change

A-Selective perception


C-Economic implications

D-Security in the past

E-All of the above


          According to Kotter and Cohen, which of the following is not a step for successful large-scale                change?

A-Build a guiding team

B-Create visions

C-Make change stick

D-Process management

E-Don’t let up

E-None of the above