Marketing Multiple Choice Questions 2

                                   CLASS TEST

There are fifty questions, each carry 2 marks. All are compulsory.

  1. Assertion (A). Selling is important not merely for increasing the profits of businessmen, but also for making goods and services available to the consumers in society.

Reason (R). It is the process whereby goods and services finally flow to the consumers who need them and the firm performs its functions of distributing its products among consumers.

  1. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true
  2. Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is not true
  3. Assertion (A) is not true but Reason (R) is true
  4. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the reason of Assertion (A)
  5. With online advertising program,_________, the companies can reach customers and grow business.
    a)
    a) AdWords
    b) AdSense
    c) AdCity
    d) AdAlpha
  6. Marketers operate in which marketplaces:a) Consumer and business
    b) Global and non-profit
    c) a & b both
    d) None of the above
  7. “Better products, Better value, Better living” is the mission statement of which company:

    a) VICCO
    b) HUL
    c) P&G
    d) NIRMA

  8. Marketing is an organizational function and a set of processes for creating, communicating and delivering value to customers and for managing customer relationships in ways that benefits the organization and its stakeholders” definition is given bya) Philip Kotler
    b) The American Marketing Association
    c) The Association of National Advertisers
    d) Peter Drucker
  9. In the software industry, Bangalore is positioned as thea) Silicon Valley of India
    b) Tech city of India
    c) Power Hub city
    d) Engineering City of India
  10. Indian Government is marketing India as a tourist destination through the ___________ advertisement campaign.
    a) Credible India
    b) Incredible India
    c) Gateway to backwaters
    d) Gateway of India
  11. Resource markets can be classified into:a) Raw material markets and labor markets
    b) Labor markets and money market
    c) Raw material market, labor market and money market
    d) None of the above
  12. Which of the following statement is true about rural marketing?a) Rural Marketing consists of marketing of only inputs to the rural marketb) Rural Marketing consists of marketing of only outputs from the rural markets to other geographical areas

    c) Rural Marketing consists of marketing of inputs to the rural market as well as well as marketing of outputs from the rural markets to other geographical areas

    d) All of above are false

  13. Value can be defined as the sum of the perceived tangible and intangible costs and benefits to customers and is a combination of :a) quality and service
    b) Service and price
    c) Quality, service and price
    d) None of the above
  14. In marketing terms, “QSP” stands fora) Quality, service and price
    b) Quality, service and product
    c) Quality, sales and product
    d) Quality, sales and prices
  15. Value ______ with quality and service and ______ with price.a) Increases, decreases
    b) increases, increases
    c) Decreases, increases
    d) Decreases, decreases
  16. The marketer uses _____________ to display, sell, or deliver the physical product or service to the buyer or user.a) Communication channel
    b) Distribution channel
    c) Service Channel
    d) None of the above
  17. When a firm acquires its peers or expands downstream or upstream, its objective is toa) Capture a higher percentage of Supply Chain Value
    b) Capture a higher percentage of Demand Chain Value
    c) a & b
    d) None of the above
  18. The broad environment consists of:a) Demographic environment, economic environment and physical environment
    b) Technological environment, political-legal environment and social-cultural environment
    c) Both a & b
    d) None of the above
  19. The societal forces that spawned the Information Age have resulted ina) Many new consumer capabilities
    b) Many new company capabilities
    c) Many new consumer and company capabilities
    d) None of the above




17 The original name of NIKE was

a) Blue Ribbon Sports
b) Red Ribbon Sports
c) Blue and Red Ribbon Sports
d) Orange Ribbon Sports

18 Holistic Marketing incorporates:

a) Relationship marketing and integrated marketing
b) Internal marketing and performance marketing
c) Both a & B
d) None of the above

18 Marketing focuses on the need of _______

a) buyer
b) Seller
c) Buyer and Seller
d) None of the above

19 Brand and customer equity is an element of

a) Relationship marketing
b) Integrated marketing
c) Internal marketing
d) Performance marketing

20 Select the theme of integrated marketing:

a) Many different marketing activities communicate and deliver value
b) When coordinated, marketing activities maximize their joint effects
c) Both a & B
d) None of the above

21 Making gifts of money, goods, or time to help non-profit organizations, groups or individuals is:

a) Corporate social marketing
b) Cause marketing
c) Cause-related marketing
d) Corporate philanthropy

  1. Promoting social issues through efforts such as licensing agreements, advertising and sponsorships is:a) Corporate social marketing
    b) Cause marketing
    c) Cause-related marketing
    d) Corporate philanthropy

23 _____________- recognizes that “Everything Matters” with marketing and that a broad, integrated perspective is often necessary.

a) The production concept
b) The product concept
c) The holistic marketing concept
d) The selling concept

  1. The value creation and delivery sequence process place emphasis on:a) Choosing the value
    b) Providing the value
    c) Communicating the value
    d) All of the above
  2. Market Research and company self analysis is a part ofa) Value-developing process
    b) Value-delivering process
    c) Value-defining process
    d) None of the above

26 Michael Porter of Harvard has proposed the _______ as a tool for identifying ways to create more customer value.

a) Product chain
b) Value chain
c) Supply chain
d) None of the above

27, The primary activities in a value chain includes

a) Inbound logistics and outbound logistics
b) Procurement and technology development
c) Human Resource Management
d) Firm Infrastructure.

28 Customer relationship management, internal resource management and business partnership management are the key functions of

a) Value exploration
b) Value delivery
c) Value creation
d) None of the above

29 Tactical marketing plan focuses on

a) Promotion
b) Merchandising
c) Sales Channel
d) All of the above

30 A target market definition tends to focus on selling a product or service to a

a) Current market
b) Potential market
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above

31 For intensive growth, the company first considers whether it could gain more market share with its current products in their current market, using a _________

a) Market-penetration strategy
b) Market development strategy
c) Product-development strategy
d) Diversification strategy

32 Market development strategy focuses on

a) Current products and new markets
b) Current products and current markets
c) New products and current markets
d) New products and new markets

33 Product development strategy for achieving intensive growth focuses on:

a) Current products and new markets
b) Current products and current markets
c) New products and current markets
d) New products and new markets

34 Acquiring one or more suppliers for integrative growth is

a) Horizontal integration
b) Forward integration
c) Backward integration
d) None of the above

35 Peter Drucker pointed out that it is more important to __________ to be effective than to ________ to be efficient.

a) Do the right thing, do things right
b) Do things right, do the right thing
c) Do the right thing, do things wrong
d) None of the above

36 For an MBO (Manages by objectives) system to work, the business unit’s objectives must meet ___ criteria.

a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

37 Michael Porter has proposed _______ generic strategies that provide a good starting point for strategic thinking.

a) 3
b) 5
c) 4
d) 6

38 Under the Consumer Protection Act, following rights of the consumers are recognized:

a) Safety and information
b) Representation and Redressal
c) Choice and consumer education
d) All of the above

39 ________________ allows for the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data and findings relevant to a specific market situation.

a) An internal record system
b) A marketing research system
c) A marketing intelligence system
d) None of the above

40 ______________ is a book published by Businessworld that provides a range of useful data on the Indian market environment, and commentaries and articles by business researchers and professionals.

a) The Marketing Whitebook
b) The Marketing Redbook
c) The Marketing Greenbook
d) None of the above





41 Companies and their suppliers, marketing intermediaries, customers, competitors, and publics all operate in a ___________________ of forces and trends, increasingly global, that shapes opportunities and pose threats.

a) Macroenvironment
b) Microenvironment
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

42 Within the rapidly changing global picture, the firm must monitor six major forces: demographic, economic, ___________, natural, technological and political legal.

a) social
b) social-cultural
c) cultural
d) None of the above

43  The main demographic force that marketers monitor is _________.

a) Population
b) Literacy
c) Sex
d) None of the above

44 Green marketing myopia can be avoided by

a) Consumer value positioning
b) Calibration of consumer knowledge
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

45 ______________ are the environmental leaders and activists, and are characterized by strong knowledge of environmental issues.

a) True Blue Greens
b) Greenback Greens
c) True Greens
d) None of the above

  1. “The performance of business activities that directs the flow of goods and services from producer to consumer or user.”, Given by:                    a.American Marketing Association, b. Peter Ducker, c. Philip Kotler, d.None 
  2.  “Image building” objectives are common in _____ type of market structure?

a Competition, b. Oligopoly, c. Monopoly, None

  1. A specialty product is ________ intensively distributed than a shopping product                                                                                                      a. More, b. Less, c. Both of the above
  2. In macro environment, ‘pressure groups’:                                                              a.cultural environment b. demographic environment c. economic    environment d. political environment
  3. In company’s microenvironment, ‘general publics’ consists of                a.minority groups, b. stockholders c. community organizations., d. public image

Organisation Behaviour: MCQ

Question 1 A common definition of Organisational Behaviour is that it is the study of:

A- Patterns of organisational structure

B- Group behaviour

C- Individual behaviour

D- All of the above

 




Question 2.

Which of the following is not part of the basic framework for analysing Organisational Behaviour issues?

a-The process of management

B-Organisational context

C-Gender and ethnic differences

 D-Behaviour of people

Question 3.

The four main dimensions which influence behaviour in work organisations are:

A-Individual, organisation, group, gender

B-Individual, group, organisation, environment

C-Group, environment, organisation, gender

D-Environment, group, individual, gender

Question 4.

The main contribution of psychology to Organisational Behaviour is the study of:

A-Personality, attitudes, perceptions and motives




B-Social structures and relationships

C Social beliefs, customs and values

D-Philosophy and ethics of human activity

Question 5.

According to Morgan metaphors can be used to view an organization. These metaphors _____________

A-Provide a broader view of the dynamics or organisational behaviour

B- All of the above

C-Define work as a central life issue

D-Are instruments of domination

Question 6.

Which of the following is not an influence on behaviour in work organisations?

A-The environment

B-The individual

C-The group

D-The building

Question 7.

The psychological contract is:

A-The match between individual and organisational expectations

B- The changing relationship between staff and manager

C-The basis for performance management

D-A set of moral and ethical codes for employee behaviour

Question 8.

The “Peter Principle” states that, in a hierarchy every employee:

A-Tends to rise to their natural level of competence

B-Tends to rise to their natural level of incompetence




C-Tends to challenge the views of their senior managers

D-Tends to seek promotion

Question 9.

Which of the following is a major feature of “Parkinson’s Law”?

A-Officials make work for each other

B-The contingency theory

C-Work expands so as to fill the time available for its completion

D-A continual process of balancing

Question 10.

Cloke and Goldsmith refer to the age of traditional management coming to an end. This is seen in the

 A-Decline of hierarchical, bureaucratic, autocratic management

B-Increase in hierarchical, bureaucratic, autocratic management styles

C-Increasingly international or global business environment

D-None of the above

        

Question 11.

Which of the following factors are cited as potential explanatory factors underlying the trend towards globalisation?

A-International business activities such as franchising

B-International competitive pressure

C-The spread of business processes across nations and regions

 D-All of the above

Question 12.

Which of the following is not an advantage of cross-cultural awareness?

A-Increased self awareness

B-Lessening ignorance, prejudice and hatred

C-Miscommunication

D-Sensitivity to difference

Question 13.

Which of the following factors is an example of a factor affecting national culture referred to by Brooks?

A-Mistrust

B-Individualism

C-Sensitivity

D-Values

Question 14.

Which of the following is not one of the series of “languages” conceptualised by Hall?

A-Language of group

B-Languages of things

C-Language of agreements

D-Language of friendships

Question 15.

What is the premise relating to organisational behaviour put forward by Wood as part of the Financial Times Mastering Management series?

A-Organisational behaviour can be regarded as the key to the whole area of management.

B-There is a need for a cross cultural approach to the study of organisational behaviour.

C-There is a dramatic change taking place in the philosophy underlying organisational behaviour.

D-None of the above.

Question 16

The study of management theory is important for which of the following reasons:

A-It is scientific

B-Management theories are interpretive and evolve with organisational changes

C-It helps decision making

D-All of the above

 

Question .

Which approach to the study of organisational behaviour emphasises the formal structure, hierarchy of management, the technical requirements and the assumption of rational behaviour?

A-The systems approach

B-The contingency theory

C-The human relations approach

D-The classical approach

 

        Question 

Which of the following are sub-groupings of the classical approach?



 

A-Individual and bureaucracy

B-Scientific management and bureaucracy

C-Scientific management and gender management

D-Environment and individual

          

Question 

Which of the following is not a feature of a bureaucracy?

A-Generalism

B-Hierarchy of authority

C-Impersonality

D-Specialisation

 

Question 

Which of the following is an example of the Hawthorne experiments?

 

A-The relay assembly test room

B-The bank wiring observation room

C-The interview  programme

D-The illumination experiments

All of the above

 

           

Question 

The systems approach __________________?

 

A-Encourages managers to view the organisation both as a whole and as part of a larger environment

B-Emphasises the psychological and social aspects

C-Emphasises the technical requirements of the organisation and its needs

D-All of the above

 

Question 

Which of the following is not a principle of action theory?



 

A-Individual members will each have their own goals and interpretation of their work situation

B-Actions can lead to changes in meanings

C-Sociology is concerned not just with behaviour but with meaningful action

D-None of the above

 

Question 

Which of the following is an advantage of dividing the writers on organisational management into various approaches?

A-The use of the term “schools” provides a clear distinction between each division

B-The various approaches are completely unrelated

C-It enables the manager to take from the different approaches those ideas which best suit the requirements of the job

           

Question 

What is the major criticism of the attempt to define generalised models of management theory?

 

A-The categorisation of writers is arbitrary

B-They provide universalistic principles of behaviour.

C-The structure of management is dependent on situational variables

D-The assumption of national culture

 

Question 

What does Crainer suggest happens when one idea after another fails to translate into sustainable practice?

 

 

A-Ideas become as important to management decisions as is instinct

B-There is a growing disillusionment with the pedlars of managerial wisdom

C-Corporate managers continue to trust theory

D-Nothing

 

    Question 

 Most social scientists believe individual personality is influenced by two main factors:

 

A-Education and genetic make-up

B-Social class and family environment

C-Inherited characteristics and social environment

D-Local environment and family traits

 

Question 

Nomothetic researchers into personality take an approach which is broadly:

A-Impressionistic

B-Scientific



C-Holistic

D-Interpretive

 

Question  

The idiographic approach believes that early family life contributes to personality development:

A-Rarely

B-Significantly

C-Minimally

D-Occasionally

 

Question  

Which   of the  following is not one of the “Big Five” dimensions of personality difference:

A-Conscientiousness and heedlessness

B-Emotional stability and instability

C-Orderliness/untidiness

D- Extraversion/introversion

 

Question 

Eysenck describes those who are calm, even-tempered, peaceful and thoughtful as:

 

A-Sanguine

B-Phlegmatic

C-Melancholic

D-Choleric

Question 6.

Cattell used _________ as his main personality descriptor.

 

A-Symbols

B-Types

C-Traits

D-Images

 

           

Question 

Cooley described the process by which we come to understand our own personalities through relationships and the reactions of others. He termed this



A-The emergent self

B-The hidden self

C-The looking-glass self

D-The true self

 

Question 

Erik Erikson’s theory is a good example of the _____________ approach.

 

A-Proactive

B-Psychoanalytic

C-Idiographic

D-Nomothetic

 

Question 9.

The psychologist who influenced the creation of the Myers-Briggs Personality Type Indicator by Isabel Briggs-Myers and Katherine Briggs was:

 

A-Kenny Rogers

B-George Melly

C-Carl Jung

D-Clement Freud

 

Question 10.

Kelly’s theory of personality constructs led to the development of:

A-The repertory grid

B-The Myers-Briggs type indicator

C-Cattel’s 16PF

D-All of the above

 

Question

Friedman and Rosenman’s work suggested that stress tended to cause illness more frequently in those with

A-Neither type

B-Both types equally

C-Type B personality

D-Type A personality

 

Question 

Nativists believe that intelligence is mostly:



 

          A-Inherited

B-Developed by experience

C-Empirical

D-A fixed quantity

 

Question 

The British Psychological Society divides psychological tests into two types – tests of:

A-Repeated and optimal performance

B-Optimal and typical performance

          C-Typical and maximum performance

D-Maximum and repeated performance

 

Question 

___________________ can be defined as “providing a state of readiness or tendency to respond in a particular way”.

 

A-Beliefs

B-Tendencies

C-Values

D-Attitudes

 

Question 

In a Diversity Management approach, organisations seek to achieve a situation where:

            A-Individual differences are valued by the business

B-The organisation has a homogeneous workforce

C-All categories of disadvantaged groups are represented at management level

D-Individual differences are created through training

 

Question 

According to Mitchell, the purpose of motivational theories is to:

A-Change behaviour

B-Predict behaviour

C-Control behaviour

D-Organise behaviour

 

Question 

Needs and expectations at work are sometimes divided into two types:

A-External/internal

B-Extrinsic/intrinsic

C-Social/spiritual

D-Effort/reward

 

Question 

mllins proposes a three-fold classification of motivation as a starting point for discussion which comprises:



 

A-Social relationships, organisational affiliation and economic rewards

B-Economic rewards, intrinsic satisfaction and social relationships

C-Intrinsic satisfaction, social relationships and organisational affiliation

D-Organisational affiliation, economic rewards and social relationships

 

Question 

Which of the following is a positive reaction to the blockage of a desired goal?

A-Regression

B-Fixation

C-Problem-solving

D-Withdrawal

 

Question

Negative responses to the blockage of a desired goal include:

A-Fixation

B-Aggression

C-Withdrawal

D-All three of the above

 

Question 

Managers can attempt to reduce levels of frustration in organisation members by:

A-Effective recruitment

B-Participative management

C-All of the above

D-None of the above

 

Question 

Aldefer and McClelland are two examples of ___________ theories of motivation.

 

A-Equity

B-Expectancy

C-Content

D-Process

 

Question 

Maslow suggests that human needs are arranged in a series of levels, a hierarchy of importance. Which of the following statements are relevant to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory?

A-A need is not necessarily fully satisfied before a subsequent need arises

B-A satisfied need is no longer a motivator

C-The hierarchy is not necessarily in a fixed order

D-All of the above

 

Question

Steers and Porter’s model relates the _____________ level of Maslow’s Hierarchy to organisational factors that include a cohesive work group and friendly supervision.

A-Safety

B-Social

C-Esteem

D-Self-actualization

Question 

According to Herzberg, which of the following may be regarded as hygiene/maintenance factors?

A-Working conditions

B-Salary

C-Company policy

D-All of the above



 Question 

McClelland’s achievement motivation theory states that people with a high achievement need have a preference for:

A-Attaining success through their own efforts rather than through teamwork

B-Clear and unambiguous feedback

C-Both of the above

D-Neither of the above

Question 

Vroom and Porter and Lawler developed examples of __________ models of motivation:

            A-Expectancy

B-Content

C-Goal

D-Attribution

Question 

Equity theory of motivation focuses on:

A-People’s expectation of the different outcomes for a given action

B-People’s perception of how they should perform in a given situation at work

C-The motivational force involved in a person’s actions at work

D- The fact that people are influenced by the expected results of their actions.

 

 

 

 

 

Question 

Which of the following statements is true about the Goal Theory of motivation?

 

A-People with difficult goals will perform better than people with easier goals.

B- Research has shown that there is little support for the Goal Theory and its effects on motivation with regard to the relationship between goal-setting and performance.

C- People with easier goals will perform better than people with difficult goals.

D- A person’s level of commitment to a goal will not regulate the level of effort expended.

Question 

Which of the following is not a core job dimension as summarised by Mullins?

A-Skill variety

B-Autonomy

C-Potential

D-Task significance

Question    

Teams occur when a number of people have ____________________ and recognise that their personal success is dependent on the success of others.

A-Similar jobs

B-The same manager

C-A common goal

D-A shared work environment

Question 

Groups which are formed as the consequence of organisational structure and work division are known as:

A-informal groups

B-target groups

C-operational groups

D-formal groups

Question 

Bolton and Fisher noted that ________________ teams can be formed specifically to initiate organisational change.

A-Change

B-Virtual

C-Virtuoso

C-Super

Question 

Reasons for the formation of groups include:

A -The performance of certain tasks which can be performed only through combined efforts of individuals working together.

B-The provision of protection for its membership.

C -The provision of guidelines on generally acceptable behaviour.

D- All of the above

Question 

In the Tuckman model, groups at the ___________________ stage develop guidelines and standards of acceptable behaviour.

A-Forming

B-Adjourning

C-Storming

D-Norming

Question 

A potential disadvantage associated with cohesive groups is:

A-A tendency to develop attitudes which are hard to change

B-A tendency to see other groups as rivals

C-A tendency to focus on social activities which may reduce output

D-All of the above



Question

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an effective work group?

A-The open expression of feelings and disagreements

B-A sense of commitment by individual member’s to their own goals and objectives.

C-The resolution of conflict by members themselves.

  D- A belief in shared aims and objectives.

Question 

A virtual team is a collection of people who are _________________ separated but still __________________ together closely.

A-Geographically; work

B-Physically; think

C-Geographically; decide

D-Temporally; work

Question 

A role-set is the range of contacts with whom an individual in a particular role has:

A-A line management relationship

B-Regular appraisals

C-Daily contact

D-Meaningful interactions

 Question 

Belbin’s initial research led him to propose how many team roles?

A-Eight

B-Seven

C-Six

D-Nine

Question 

The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as imagination and creativity but may show disregard for practical details is:

A-Plant

B-Shaper

C-Specialist

D-Team Worker

Question 

The team-role which is likely to demonstrate such positive qualities as strategic vision and accurate judgement but may also be overly critical is:

A-Team Worker

B-Specialist

C-Monitor-Evaluator

D-Shaper

Question 

The type of communication network which is most efficient for simple tasks is the:

A-All channel

B-Wheel

C-Y-chain

D-Circle

Question 

The risky-shift phenomenon means that there is a tendency for groups to make decisions which are _______________________ than those which individual members would make.

A-Less risky

B-Less consistent

C-More conservative

D-More risky

Question 

Brainstorming as a problem-solving and decision-making technique:

A-Focuses the mind

B-Encourages communication

C-Involves everyone

D-All three of the above

 Question  

Which  of the following is an explanation of the “Johari Window”

A-A blind area

B-Hidden behaviour

C-A simple framework for looking at self-insight

D-None of the above

Question  

According to Douglas are people management skills are the ______________ types of skills.

A-Natural

B-Direct and honest

C-Formal

D-More difficult and rare

 

Question 

   Leadership today is increasingly associated with the concept of ______________?

A-Getting others to follow



B-Command

C-Strategy

D-Control

Question 

Which of the following statements about leadership is false?

A-Leadership does not necessarily take place within a hierarchical structure of an organisation

B-When people operate as leaders their role is always clearly established and defined

C-Not every leader is a manager

D-All the above

     Question 

Approaches to the study of leadership which emphasis the personality of the leader are termed ______________.

A-Inspirational theories

B-Trait theories

C-Group theories

D-Contingency theories

Question 

Adair claims that the effectiveness of a leader is dependent upon meeting ________areas of need within the work group.

A-Four

B-Two

C-Three

D-None of the above

Question 

In Adair’s approach, needs such as training the group, setting standards and maintaining discipline, and appointing sub-leaders may be called _____________.

            A-Team functions

B-Task functions

C-Work functions

D-Individual functions

Question 

The Ohio State Leadership Studies revealed two major dimensions of leadership behaviour: _________________ and initiating structure.

A-Consideration

B-Collaboration

C-Communication

D-Control

Question 

The terms “employee-centred” and “production-centred” to describe leader behaviour were used by ___________?

A-Fiedler

B-Likert

C-Blake and McCanse

D-McGregor

Question 

What are the four main styles of leadership displayed by the manager which identified in Tannenbaum and Schmidt’s continuum of possible leadership behaviour?

A-Tells, helps, joins and leads

B-Commands, sells, consults and resists

C-Commands, helps, joins and leads

D-Tells, sells, consults and joins

Question 

On what belief are contingency theories of leadership based?

A-That there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all situations

B-That there is a single style of leadership appropriate to all managers

C-That there is no single style of leadership appropriate to all situations

D-None of the above

Question 

According to Fiedler’s LPC scale what will leaders with a low LPC score gain satisfaction from?

A-Developing team relationships

B-Achieving objectives

C-Both of the above

D-Neither of the above

Question 

On which aspects of a leader’s decision are Vroom and Yetton’s contingency model of leadership based?

A-Decision quality

B-Decision acceptance

C-Both of the above

D-Neither of the above

Question 



One contingency model of leadership is the path-goal theory. This suggests that an individual‘s motivation is dependent on _____________________.

A-Their effective performance

B-The necessary direction, guidance, training and support being provided

C-Whether path-goal relationships are clarified

D-Expectations that increased effort to achieve an improved level of performance will be successful

Question 

The situation leadership theory of ___________ and ______________ is based on follower’s readiness to perform.

A-Abbot and Costello

B-Vroom and Yetton

C-Hersey and Blanchard

D-Tannenbaum and Schmidt

Question 

Extensive research in over 30 countries has shown that people want leaders who exemplify four qualities. Kouzes and Posner (2000) suggest these qualities are ________, ________, _________ and ___________.

A-Inspiring, competent, influential, dynamic

B-Honest, dynamic, ruthless, single minded

C-Forward-looking, influential, competent, dynamic

D-Honest, forward-looking, inspiring, competent

Question 

Referent power is based on the subordinate’s perception that the leader has a right to exercise influence because of the leader’s _______________.

A-Personal charisma

B-Ability to punish or reward

C-Role or position within the organisation

D-Expertise and knowledge

Question 

According to Knights and Williams, what could management be seen as?

A-A job title

B-An everyday activity involving interactions between people

C-A field of study

D-A social position

Question 

Which of the following are included in Watson’s method of viewing management?

A-Personality, job title, style, politics

B-Management as magic, job title, management as art, management as science

C-Management as magic, management as art, management as science, management as politics

D-Leadership. management as art, management as science, management as politics

Question 

Administration can be viewed as:

A-The same thing as management

B-Separate from management

C-Part of management

D-Less important than management

Question 

Brech identifies four main elements of management. They are: planning, control, co-ordination and:

A-Centralisation

B-Motivation

C-The division of work

D-Discipline

Question 



Which of the following is not one of the five elements of management?

A-Command

B-Co-ordination

C-Organising

D-Control

E-Planning

FCentralisation

Question 

Mintzberg classified the activities of monitoring, disseminating and being a spokesperson as part of a manager’s ______________ role.

A-Interpersonal

B-Informational

C-Decisional

D-None of the above

Question 

Kotter identified the significant activities which all managers had in common as:

A-Network building and strategic planning

B-Strategic planning and resource allocating

C-Agenda setting and resource allocating

D-Agenda setting and network building

 

Question 

Managers require a combination of technical competence, social and human skills and conceptual ability. Technical competence may be defined as:

A-The ability to secure the effective use of human resources of the organisation

B-The ability to view the complexities of the operations of the organisation as a whole, including environmental influences

C-The ability to apply specific knowledge, methods and skills to discrete tasks

Question 

What type of approach is most frequently identified with Human Capital Management (HCM)?

A-Controlling

B-Influencing and manipulative

C-Formalized, technical and manipulative

D-Interpersonal and technical

Question 

Which of the following statements is not an assumption of a manager who might adopt a Theory X style of management?

A-The average person avoids responsibility

B-People must be threatened with punishment if the organisation is to meet its objectives

C-The intellectual potential of the average person is only partially utilised

D-The average person is lazy and has an inherent dislike of work

Question 

Which of the following is an assumption of Theory Y?

A-Given the right conditions, the average worker can learn to accept responsibility

B-Commitment to objectives is a function of rewards associated with their achievement

C-The capacity for creativity in solving organizational problems is distributed widely in the population

D-The intellectual potential of the average person is only partly utilised

E-All of the above

Question 

The Blake and Mouton Leadership (or Managerial) Grid uses two key dimensions in relation to management style; concern for ___________ and concern for _______________.

A-Production, co-operation

B-Productio n, teamwork

            C-People, production

D-People, targets

Question 

In the Blake and Mouton Leadership grid, which management style has a low concern for people but a high concern for production?

A-Authority-compliance

B-Impoverished

C-Country club

D-Middle-of-the-road

Question 

MBO stands for:

A-Management by Objectives

B-Management by Organising

C-Management by Objectification

D-Managerial Behaviour in Organisations

Question 



Which of the following philosophies are likely to make for the successful management of people and lead to improved work performance?

A-Emphasis on end-results

B-Fair and equitable treatment

C-Staff and customer satisfaction

D-Involvement and availability

Recognition and credit

All of the above

 Question 

Which of the following is NOT a measure of a manager’s effectiveness?

A-Speed of promotion through the organisation

B-Level of staff turnover

C-Absenteeism and sickness

D-Accidents at work

Question 

Corporate strategy can be seen as a term which embraces a link between structure, the process of management and:

A-Job design

B-Work organisation

C-Applications of organisational behaviour

D-Human resource management

Question 

According to Lynch, in public sector organizations strategy is likely to be governed by:

A-Bureaucracy

B-Public policy issues

C-Both of the above

D-Neither of the above

Question 

A simple way of expressing the term “synergy” is ____________?

A-2 + 2 = 5

B-2 x 2 = 1

C-2 x 2 = 4

D-2 + 2 = 4

Question 

One way of evaluating an organisation’s business environment and strategic capability is to use a __________________ analysis.

A-PESTEL

B-SWIFT

C-SWOT

D-SMART

Question 

Organisations have both formal and informal goals. Informal goals can be inferred from:

A-The mission statement

B-The strategic plan

C-Decisions and actions taken from within the organisation

D-The annual results

Question 

Organisational ____________________ set out more specifically the goals of the organisation, the aims to be achieved and the desired end state.

A-Purpose

B-Strategy

C-Objectives

D-Mission

Question  



A  policy ________________?

A-Provides the basis for decision making and the course of action to follow to achieve objectives.

B-Is a set of managerial objectives

C-Both of the above

D-Neither of the above

Question 

Which of the following is not one of the categories found in the mnemonic SMART objectives?

A-Timebound

B-Marketable

C-Specific

D-Achievable

E-Realistic

Question 

The objectives of structure may be summarised as to provide for ______________?

A-The social satisfaction of members working in the organisation

B-The economic and efficient performance of the organisation

C-Accountability for areas of work undertaken by groups

D-Flexibility in order to respond to future demands

E- All of the above

Question 

What are the 3 interrelated levels which, according to Mullins, it is possible to look at organisations in terms of?

A-Community, individual, managerial

B-Technical, managerial, community

C-Individuals, society, organisation

D-Technical, managerial, society

Question 

Which of the following best defines the term “span of control”?

A-The vertical graduation of authority and responsibility

B-The length of the manager’s arms

C-The number of subordinates who report directly to a given manager

D-The responsibility the supervisor has for the actions of their subordinates

Question 

Which of the following is not a relationship found in a formal organisation?

A-Staff

B-Line

C-Lateral

D-Functional

E-Personal

Question 

What sort of organisation might operate a matrix structure?

A-A university

B-A local authority social services department

C-An insurance company

D-All of the above

Question 

The contingency approach develops the _________ approach one stage further in relating the environment to specific structures of organisation.

A-Systems

B-Organisation chart

C-Information

D-Flexibility

E-None of the above

Question

 Control is a general concept that can be applied to __________________?

A-Individual performance only

B-Individual behaviour only

C-Organisational performance only

D-Both individual behaviour and organisational performance

 Question 

What does the human relations approach sees control as?

A-A feature of the way organisations are structured

B-Necessary

C-Unnecessary

D-A feature of interpersonal influence

E-None of the above

Question 



Which of the following is not something with which a control can be concerned?

A-Type of production system

B-Policies and procedures

C-General results

D-Observance of legislation

E-Recruitment and selection

F-None of the above

Question 

Which of the following is a strategy for control as explained by Child?

A-Personal

B-Bureaucratic

C-Cultural

D-HRM

D-all of the above

Question 

Which of these are characteristics of an effective control system?

A-it should be able to determine corrective action

B-it should be subject to continual review

C-it should report deviations from desired standards as soon as possible

D-all of the above

Question 

Power differs according to the means by which members of the organisation are likely to comply. Which three types of power are identified by Etzioni?

A-Coercive; remunerative; normative

B-Normative; legitimate; coercive

C-Referent; remunerative; legitimate

D-Coercive; referent; reward

Question 

__________ power relies on the allocation and the manipulation of symbolic rewards, for example, esteem and prestige.

A-Coercive

B-Calculative

C-Normative

D-Remunerative

Question 

Which of the following defies calculative involvement?

A-When members are involved against their wishes.

B-The individuals belief in the goals of the organsiation

C-Where attachment to the orgainisation is motivated by extrinsic rewards

D-None of the above

Question 

The three levels of power are ______________?

A-Institutional, national, individual

B-Processional, organisational, national

C-Processional, institutional, organisational

D-None of the above

Question 

According to Hicks and Gullett for a control system to be meaningful it should ____________?

A-Draw attention to critical activities important to the success of the organisation

B-Be understood by those involved in its operation

C-Report deviations from the desired standard of performance as quickly as possible

D-Conform with the structure of the organisation

E-  All of the above

Question 



Which of the following, according to Pfeffer, is a way in which an individual or group may acquire power in an organisation?

A-Reward power

B-Legitimate power

C-Being Irreplaceable

D-Expert power

E-All of the above

Question 

Delegation creates a special manager-subordinate relationship based on:

A-authority, responsibility, accountability

B-authority, power, control

C-power, ability, willingness

D-knowledge, skill, attitude

Question 

A study of major UK businesses suggests that the reaction to the new wave of management thinking on empowerment is _______________?

A-Despondent reaction

B-Mixed reaction

C-Apathetic reaction

D-Enthusiastic reaction

Question 

Which of the following is a possible reason for a lack of delegation?

A-The manager has no terms of reference

B-The manager fears the subordinate will be too good a job and show the manager in a bad light

C-The manager has had no guidance support and training

None of the above

D-All of the above

Question 

Which of the following is one of the stages in a planned and systematic approach to delegation?

A-Guidance, support and training

B-Freedom of action within agreed terms of reference

C-Effective monitoring

D-Clarification of objectives

All of the above

 Question 

What does and Ethical Foundation for an organisation embody?

A-The structure, operational and conduct of the activities of the organisation

B-The basic principles which govern the external and internal relations of the organisation

C-Neither of the above

Question 

What does the importance of ethical behaviour, integrity and trust call into question?

A-The extent to which managers should attempt to change the underlying beliefs and values of individual followers

B-What we do next

C-Who does what

None of the above

All of the above

Question 

A ________ _________ sets out the purpose and general direction for the organisation?

A-Mission statement

B-Vision

C-Purpose statement

D-Profit statement

E-All of the above

Question 

Which of the following would most effectively act as the primary objective of a business organisation?

A-To procure resources

B-To mediate between the organisation and the environment

C-To communicate with shareholders

D-To make a profit

E-All of the above

Question 

What is the purpose of a balanced scorecard?

A-To measure contribution of people to business growth

B-To relate business performance to customer satisfaction

C-To relate business performance to financial measures

D-To combine a range of qualitative and quantitative indicators of performance

E-All of the above

Question 

Which of the following does the term Corporate Social Responsibility relate to?

A-Ethical conduct

B-Environmental practice

C-Human rights and employee relations

D-Community investment

E-All of the above

         Question 

            Who are organisational stakeholders?

A-Customers

B-Employees

C-Providers of finance

D-Community

E-Government

F-All of the above

        Question 

What is Ethics to do with?

A-The wider community

B-Business

C-Right and wrong



D-Nothing

E-None of the above

           Question 

 Which of the following is an example of an area where business ethics apply?

A-Conduct of international operations

B-Nowhere

C-In the personal life of staff

D-None of the above

            Question 

           Which legislation relates to the concept of business ethics?

A-Building regulations

B-Food Act

C-Freedom of Information Act

D-All of these

             Question 

            According to French and Bell, culture is ____________________?

A-Traditions, values, policies, beliefs

B-Values, styles, processes, activities

C-Traditions, values

D-The bedrock of behaviour in organisations

E-Policies, practices, behaviours

F-None of the above

           Question 

            A number of approaches may be used to bring about effective change within an organisation,               often called intervention strategies, these include:

A-grid training

B-team building

C-T-groups

D-all of the above

             Question 

 Schein suggested three levels of culture in order from shallowest to deepest. In this order,                      they are:

A-History, artefacts, beliefs

B-Assumptions, artefacts, values

C-History, values, activities

D-Artefacts, values, assumptions

E-None of the above

          Question 

          Harrison and Handy describe a project oriented organisation which is structured like a matrix              and based on expert power as a __________ culture.

A-Person

B-Task

C-Power

D-Role

E-None of the above

          Question 

          According to Deal and Kennedy, an organisation of individualists who take high risks and                      receive quick feedback, is an example of a ____________? described as:

A-process culture

B-Work-hard/play-hard culture

C-Bet-your-company culture

D-Tough-guy, macho culture

E-None of the above

          Question 

The pervasive nature of culture means that it will significantly affect:

A-Motivation and job satisfaction

B-Decision-making

C-Group behaviour

D-All of the above

           Question 

           Organisational climate is based on the ____________ of members towards the organisation.

            A-Perceptions

B-Commitment

C-Loyalty

D-None of the above

All of the above

             Question 

             Galunic and Weeks suggest that with the demise of ______________ companies need other                strategies to encourage commitment?

A-Pension plans

B-Job security

C-Promotion opportunities

D-Career paths

E-None of the above

          Question 

          Resistance to change can be caused by:

A-Selective perception

B-Habit

C-Inconvenience

D-All of the above



            Question 

            It is Cunningham’s belief that, despite the popular myth to the contrary, people generally

A-Love change

B-Like being controlled

C-Prefer stability

D-Dislike change

           Question

            Which of the following is NOT one of Kotter and Cohen’s series of steps for successful                            management of large-scale change?

A-Empowering action

B-Producing short-term wins

C-Creating visions

D-Unfreezing

E-None of the above

Question – Which  of the following is a reason for an individual’s resistance to change

A-Selective perception

B-Habit

C-Economic implications

D-Security in the past

E-All of the above

         Question 

          According to Kotter and Cohen, which of the following is not a step for successful large-scale                change?

A-Build a guiding team

B-Create visions

C-Make change stick

D-Process management

E-Don’t let up

E-None of the above

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

ORGANIZATION BEHAVIOR Important Questions:

Subjective questions: any four out of Six.

 

1.   Type of Team.

2.   Five importance of Control.

3.   Define Social Loafing and type of group decision techniques

4.   Steps in planning

5.   Characteristics of Leading

6.    Main function of leader

 

MCQ:

 

  • ·        Simple and straight forward.
  • ·        Most of them from first line after heading.
  • ·        Many quantitative questions like “how many points in Cattels model”. Remember all defined by famous people. Like how many steps in group forming, How many steps in Maslow’s law etc.
  • ·        Learn all things related to persons. Some very least describe/famous will come from book. Try to know all person and their statements.

 

 

Don’t forget information emphasized in class like Devil’s advocate etc. Recall how it is mentioned in book which requires reading line by line J.