HRM: MCQ

 

Question 1

———–are the resources that provide utility value to all other resources.

A-Men

B-Material

C-Money

D-Machinery

 

Question 2.

The term procurement stands for

 

A-recruitment and selection

B-training and development

C-pay and benefits

D-health and safety

 

Question 3.

The characteristics of human resources are ________ in nature

A-homogeneous

B-heterogeneous

C-ductility

D-None of the above

 

Question 4.

Identify the managerial function out of the following functions of HR managers.

 

A-procurement

B-development

C-organizing

D-performance appraisal

 

Question 5.

Which of the following is an example of operative function of HR managers?

 

A-planning

B-organizing

C-procurement

D-controlling

 

Question 6.

The scope of human resource management includes

 

A-procurement

B-development

C–compensation

D-All of the above

 

Question 7


Human resource management is normally ________ in nature.

 

A-proactive

B-reactive

C-combative

D-None of the above

 

Question 8.

The human resource management functions aim at



 

A-ensuring that the human resources possess adequate capital, tool, equipment and material to perform the job successfully

B-helping the organization deal with its employees in different stages of employment

C-improving an organization’s creditworthiness among financial institutions

D-None of the above

 

 

Question 9.

Which of the following aptly describes the role of line managers and staff advisors, namely HR professionals?

 

 

A-Staff advisors focus more on developing HR programmes while line managers are more involved in the implementation of those programmes.

B-Line managers are concerned more about developing HR programmes whereas staff advisors are more involved in implementing such programmes.

C-Staff advisors are solely responsible for developing, implementing and evaluating the HR programmes while line managers are not all involved in any matters concerning HR.

D-Line managers alone are responsible for developing, implementing and evaluating the HR programmes while staff advisors are not all involved in any matters concerning HR.

 

Question- 10

In strategic human resource management, HR strategies are generally aligned with

 

A-business strategy

B-marketing strategies

C-finance strategy

D-economic strategy

 

Question -11

Which of the following is closely associated with strategic human resource management?

 

A-efficient utilization of human resources

B-attracting the best human resources

C-providing the best possible training

D-All of the above

 

Question- 12.

Treating employees as precious human resources is the basis of the _______ approach.

 

A-hard HRM

B-soft HRM

C-medium HRM

D-None of the above

 

Question- 13.

Strategic human resource management aims to achieve competitive advantage in the market through

 

A-price

B-product

C-people

D-process

 

Question 14.

Wright and Snell made important contribution to the growth of

A-Strategic fit model

B-Strategic labour allocation process model

C-Business-oriented model

D-None of the above

 

 

Question 15.



Strategic management process usually consists of _______ steps.

 

A-Four

B-Five

C-Six

D-Seven

 

Question 16.

One of the components of corporate level strategy is

 

A-growth strategy

B-portfolio strategy

C-parenting strategy

D-All of the above

 

Question 17.

Creating an environment that facilitates a continuous and two-way exchange of information between the superiors and the subordinates is the core of

 

A-High involvement management model

B-High commitment management model

C-High performance management model

D-None of the above

 

Question 18

Job analysis is a process of gathering information about the

 

A-job holder

B-job

C-management

D-organization

 

Question 19.

The final process of a job analysis is the preparation of two statements, namely,

 

A-job observation and job description

B-job specification and job observation

C-job description and job specification

D-None of the above

 

 

Question-20

Which of the following terms is not associated with job analysis?

 

A-task

B-duty

C-position

D-competitor

 

Question 21.

The process of bringing together different tasks to build a job is called

 

A-job evaluation

B-job design

C-job classification

D-job description

 

 

 

Question 22.



The process of grouping of similar types of works together is known as

 

A-job classification

B=-job design

C-job evaluation

D-job description

 

Question 23.

The system of ranking jobs in a firm on the basis of the relevant characteristics, duties, and responsibilities is known as

 

 

A-job evaluation

B-job design

C-job specification

D-job description

 

 

Question 24

The written statement of the findings of job analysis is called

 

 

A-job design

B-job classification

C-job description

D-job evaluation

 

 

Question 25

A structured questionnaire method for collecting data about the personal qualities of employees is called

 

A-functional job analysis

B-management position description questionnaire

C-work profiling system

D-none of the above

Question 26.

The model that aims at measuring the degree of each essential ability required for performing the job effectively is known as

 

 

A-Fleishman Job Analysis System

B-common metric questionnaire

C-management position description questionnaire

D-functional job analysis

 

 

 

Question-26.

The method that depends mainly on the ability and experience of the supervisors for gathering relevant information about the job is called the

 

A-task inventory analysis method

B-technical conference method

C-diary maintenance method

D-critical incident method

 

Question-27

Designing a job according to the worker’s physical strength and ability is known as

 

A-ergonomics

B-task assortment

C-job autonomy

D-none of the above

 

 

 

Question-28.

Which of the following is not a component of job design?

 

A-job enrichment

B-job rotation

C-job reengineering

D-job outsourcing

 

Question-28.

Moving employees from one job to another in a predetermined way is called

 

A-job rotation

B-job reengineering

C-work mapping

D-job enrichment

 

Question 29

The basic purpose of human resource planning is to

A-Identify the human resource requirements

B-identify the human resource availability

C-match the HR requirements with the HR availability

D-All of the above

 

Question 30




.

The primary responsibility for human resource planning lies with

 

A-HR Manager

B-general manager

C-trade union leader

D-line manager

 

Question.31

The plans that necessitate changes in the existing technology, the organizational structure, and the employees’ authority and responsibility are called

 

A-short-term HR plan

B-medium-term HR plan

C-long-term HR plan

D-none of the above

 

 

 

Question 32.

Which of the following is not a forecasting technique to assess the human resource requirements of an organization?

 

A-trend analysis

B-ratio analysis

C-managerial judgment

D-replacement charts

 

 

 

Question 33.

The term bottom-up approach is commonly associated with

 

A-normal group technique

B-Delphi technique

C-managerial judgment

D-work study technique

 

 

 

Question 34.

The method that requires the line managers to justify the continuance of each job that becomes vacant is called

 

A-simulation model

B-zero-base forecasting

C-human resource allocation approach

D-Delphi technique

 

Question-35.

The forecasting based on the subjective views of the managers on the HR requirements of an organization is known as

 

A-normal group technique

B-Delphi technique

C-managerial judgment

D-work study technique

Question 36

The primary aim of recruitment and selection process is to

A-meet the high labour turnover

B-hire the best individuals at optimum cost

C-ensure the availability of surplus in the case of sickness and absence

D-none of the above

 

Question 37

Recruitment is widely viewed as a _______ process.

 

         A-positive

B-negative

C-both positive and negative

D-none of these

 

Question 38.

The process of developing an applicants’ pool for job openings in an organization is called

A-hiring

B-recruitment

C-selection

D-retention

 

Question 39.

Recruitment policy usually highlights the need for establishing

 

A-job specification

B-job analysis

C-job description

D-none of the above

 

Question 40



_______ indicates the degree to which a tool or test measures what it is supposed to measure.

  • validity

B-reliability

C-dependability

D-goodness of fit

 

 

Question 41

Which of the following is the most serious problem that might arise due to excessive reliance on internal recruitment?

 

A-reduced job performance

B-high labour turnover

C-lack of motivation

D-internal resistance

 

 

Question 42.

Internal recruitment has the potentiality to increase the _______ of the employees.

 

A-conflicts

B-misunderstanding

C-income

D-morale

 

 

 

Question.43

Advertisements through newspapers, TV, radio, professional journals and magazines are _______ methods of recruitment.

 

A-direct

B-indirect

C-third-party

D-none of the above

 

Question-44

State employment exchanges are generally the main agencies of

 

A-private employment

B-public employment

C-professional employment

D-None of the above

 

 

Question 45

A prerequisite for a successful and efficient recruitment programme is to have a(n)

 

A-corporate policy

B-HR policy

C-recruitment policy

D-health and safety policy

Question 46

Selection is usually considered as a _______ process.

 

A-positive

B-negative

C-neutral

D-None of the above

Question 47.



The process of eliminating unsuitable candidates is called

 

A-selection

B-recruitment

C-interview

D-induction

 

Question 48.

Which of the following helps the managers with the information required to make good human resources decisions?

 

 

A-selection

B-industrial relations

C-recruitment

D-performance appraisal

 

 

Question 49.

The process of selection of employees is usually influenced by

 

A-rules and regulations

B-strategies and objectives

C-principles and programmes

D-none of the above

 

Question 50.

The purpose of an application blank is to gather information about the

A-company

B-candidate

C-questionnaire or interview schedule

D-competitors

 

Question .51

Which of the following is used to measure the various characteristics of the candidate?

 

A-physical test

B-psychological test

C-attitude test

D-proficiency test

 

 

Question 52.

Identify the test that acts as an instrument to discover the inherent ability of a candidate.

 

A-aptitude test

B-attitude test

C-proficiency test

D-physical test

 

Question 53.

When the candidate is put to hardship during interview, it is called

A-patterned interview

B-in-depth interview

C-stress interview

D-preliminary interview

 

Question 54.

Which of the following orders is followed in a typical selection process?

 

A-Test and/or interview, application form, reference check and physical examination

B-Application form, test and/or interview, reference check and physical examination

C-Reference check, application form, test and/or interview and physical examination

D-Physical examination, test and/or interview, application form and reference check

Question 56

Which of the following is not true about training?

 

A-It is a short-duration exercise.

B-It is technical in nature.

C-It is primarily for managers and executives.

D-It is concerned with specific job skills.

 

Question 57



In which type of analysis are corporate goals and plans compared with the existing manpower inventory to determine the training needs?

 

A-Organization analysis

B-Operation analysis

C-Individual analysis

D-None of the above

 

Question 58

Training concentrates on

 

A-coaching the members of an organization how to perform effectively in their current jobs

B-expansion of the knowledge and skills of the members of an organization

C-preparing the employees to take on new responsibilities

D-none of the above

 

Question 59.

The process of enhancing the technical skills of workers in a short period is called

 

A-training

B-development

C-education

D-none of the above

 

         

Question 60.

E-learning is all about

 

A-computers and computing

B-being technology-driven

C-electronics

D-experience

 

Question 61.

The planned use of networked information and communications technology for the delivery of training is called

 

A-e-learning

B-role playing

C-case study

D-programmed learning

 

Question 62.

Which one of the following is a source of assessing training needs?

 

A-performance evaluation

B-attitude survey

C-advisory panel

D-all of the above

 

Question 63.

Laboratory training is also known by the name

 

A-sensitivity training

B-job instruction training

C-apprenticeship training

D-none of the above

 

 

Question 64.

_______ method creates a situation that is as far as possible a replica of the real situation for imparting training.

 

A-The programmed learning

B-The Simulation



C-The case study

D-The lecture

 

 

Question.65

A team of learners working online in a real-time mode using the Internet is known as

A-individualized self-paced e-learning online

B-individualized self-paced e-learning offline

C-group-based e-learning synchronously

D-group-based e-learning asynchronously

 

Question.66

Training need analysis takes place during which phase of the training process?

 

A-deciding what to teach

B-deciding how to maximize participant learning

C-choosing appropriate instructional methods

D-determining whether training programmes are effective

 

Question 67

Organizational development as an intervention programme is basically a _______ approach.

 

A-top-to-bottom

B-horizontal

C-bottom-to-top

D-None of the above

 

Question 68.

A scientific approach to study and then solving organizational issues experienced by an organization is called

 

A-action research

B-applied research

C-pure research

D-None of the above

 

 

Question .69

Which one of the following is not a stakeholder in an organizational development process?

 

A-Customers

B-Suppliers

C-Government agencies

D-None of the above

 

Question 70.

Which of the following methods is adopted when there is a high uncertainty in the external environment?

 

A-Contingency approach

B-System design approach

C-Data-driven approach

D-None of the above

 

 

Question 71.

Which of the following is not an organizational development intervention programme?

 

A-Team-building

B-Survey feedback

C-Leadership development

D-All of the above

Question 72

Performance management is viewed as a process carried out as a(n)

 

A-once-a-year task

B-twice-a-year activity

C-ongoing process or cycle

D-None of the above

Question 73

Performance evaluation can be defined as a process of evaluating

 

A-past performance

B-present performance

C-future performance

D-past and present performance

 

 

Question 74



The term performance rating system stands for

A-a grade or score concerning the overall performance

B-the information about the extent to which the work objectives were met

C-the past objectives of the organization

D-the achievements for a period of one year

 

 

Question 75

The 360-degree performance feedback involves the evaluation of employees by

 

A-HR managers

B-employees

C-supervisors

D-all who are directly in contact with the ratee

 

Question 76

Which of the following is the most essential requirement for an effective points-based rating system?

 

A-Close coordination between the management and the HR department

B-Comprehensive, dependable and consistent information

C-Impartiality in evaluation

D-None of the above

 

Question 78.

When the focus of the evaluation is on facts and not on traits, it is known as _____ evaluation.

 

 

A-objective

B-subjective

C-performance

D-career

 

 

Question 79

The purpose of the Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale(BARS) is to

 

A-evaluate a good or bad performance

B-define a job

C-improve inter-personal relationship skills

D-None of the above

 

Question 80

 

Which of the following is an essential prerequisite of MBO?

 

A-Joint goal-setting

B-Mid-term review

C-Developing reviews

D-All of the above

 

 

Question 81



The evaluation method that requires the supervisors to keep a written record of positive and negative work-related actions of the employees is called

 

A-Critical incident method

B-Essay method

C-Work standard method

D-Field review method

 

Question 82

In which of the following methods is the evaluation done by someone other than the employee’s own supervisors?

 

A-Essay method

B-Critical incident method

C-Field review method

D-None of the above

 

         

Question.83

Job evaluation is a technique adopted for determining the _______ of the job.

 

A-internal worth

B-external worth

C-internal and external worth

D-None of the above

 

Question 84.

When each job is individually compared with every other in the organization, it is called

 

A-Ranking method

B-Paired comparison method

C-Point ranking method

D-Factor comparison method

 

 

Question 85

Which of the following is not an analytical method of job evaluation?

 

A-Point ranking method

B-Factor comparison method

C-Paired comparison

D-None of the above

 

Question.86

Which of the following is an analytical method of job evaluation?

 

A-Paired comparison

B-Ranking method

C-Job grading

D-Point ranking method

 

Question 87

When jobs are grouped on the basis of the similarities found in their characteristics and values, it is called

 

A-Paired comparison

B-Ranking method

C-Job grading

D-Point ra